I refer to the letter by The Other Malaysian titled ' Sex not a prerequisite in marriage '. I feel that the definition of marital rape has been over-simplified.

Rape is not only about physical power. Cuts and bruises do not necessarily indicate rape. That is called wife-battering. Rape can also be a result of other forms of power, not necessarily physical strength.

It can be financial. A husband can deny his wife money unless she performs sex with him. Rape can also be the result of blackmail. Husbands know their wives' secrets, so it is easy to blackmail them. Rape can also be due to fear. The husband may have psychiatric problems and his wife may be afraid to aggravate him.

So, it is possible for marital rape to occur without any physical injury to the wife. How does one prove marital rape then?