Steve Oh suggests that it is impossible for someone to be both gay and Christian as that would fly in the face of the Bible.

He suggests that the Bible is pretty explicit on this, and that this is not subject to interpretation.

Is a passage such as the following from Matthew also not subject to interpretation:

5: 31 It hath been said, Whosoever shall put away his wife, let him give her a writing of divorcement:

5: 32 But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.

The last time I checked, most of the Christian churches allow divorce, and for reasons other than fornication, and also allow marriage to a divorcee.

Are we then to believe that, on this matter at least, the Christian churches are in fact not Christian?

Or should, instead, Matthew 7:1-5 be taken literally:

Judge not, that ye be not judged.

For with what judgment ye judge, ye shall be judged: and with what measure ye mete, it shall be measured to you again.

And why beholdest thou the mote that is in thy brother's eye, but considerest not the beam that is in thine own eye?

Or how wilt thou say to thy brother, Let me pull out the mote out of thine eye; and, behold, a beam is in thine own eye?

Thou hypocrite, first cast out the beam out of thine own eye; and then shalt thou see clearly to cast out the mote out of thy brother's eye.